i, cap. 26] we read: "If any man does not confess that the Word of G.o.d suffered in the flesh and was crucified in the flesh, let him be anathema." Therefore Christ"s Pa.s.sion belongs to the _suppositum_ of the Divine Nature by reason of the pa.s.sible nature a.s.sumed, but not on account of the impa.s.sible Divine Nature.
Reply Obj. 1: The Lord of glory is said to be crucified, not as the Lord of glory, but as a man capable of suffering.
Reply Obj. 2: As is said in a sermon of the Council of Ephesus [*P. iii, cap. 10], "Christ"s death being, as it were, G.o.d"s death"--namely, by union in Person--"destroyed death"; since He who suffered "was both G.o.d and man. For G.o.d"s Nature was not wounded, nor did It undergo any change by those sufferings."
Reply Obj. 3: As the pa.s.sage quoted goes on to say: "The Jews did not crucify one who was simply a man; they inflicted their presumptions upon G.o.d. For suppose a prince to speak by word of mouth, and that his words are committed to writing on a parchment and sent out to the cities, and that some rebel tears up the doc.u.ment, he will be led forth to endure the death sentence, not for merely tearing up a doc.u.ment, but as destroying the imperial message. Let not the Jew, then, stand in security, as crucifying a mere man; since what he saw was as the parchment, but what was hidden under it was the imperial Word, the Son by nature, not the mere utterance of a tongue."
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QUESTION 47
OF THE EFFICIENT CAUSE OF CHRIST"S Pa.s.sION (In Six Articles)
We have now to consider the efficient cause of Christ"s Pa.s.sion, concerning which there are six points of inquiry:
(1) Whether Christ was slain by others, or by Himself?
(2) From what motive did He deliver Himself up to the Pa.s.sion?
(3) Whether the Father delivered Him up to suffer?
(4) Whether it was fitting that He should suffer at the hands of the Gentiles, or rather of the Jews?
(5) Whether His slayers knew who He was?
(6) Of the sin of them who slew Christ.
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FIRST ARTICLE [III, Q. 47, Art. 1]
Whether Christ Was Slain by Another or by Himself?
Objection 1: It would seem that Christ was not slain by another, but by Himself. For He says Himself (John 10:18): "No man taketh My life from Me, but I lay it down of Myself." But he is said to kill another who takes away his life. Consequently, Christ was not slain by others, but by Himself.
Obj. 2: Further, those slain by others sink gradually from exhausted nature, and this is strikingly apparent in the crucified: for, as Augustine says (De Trin. iv): "Those who were crucified were tormented with a lingering death." But this did not happen in Christ"s case, since "crying out, with a loud voice, He yielded up the ghost" (Matt. 27:50). Therefore Christ was not slain by others, but by Himself.
Obj. 3: Further, those slain by others suffer a violent death, and hence die unwillingly, because violent is opposed to voluntary. But Augustine says (De Trin. iv): "Christ"s spirit did not quit the flesh unwillingly, but because He willed it, when He willed it, and as He willed it." Consequently Christ was not slain by others, but by Himself.
_On the contrary,_ It is written (Luke 18:33): "After they have scourged Him, they will put him to death."
_I answer that,_ A thing may cause an effect in two ways: in the first instance by acting directly so as to produce the effect; and in this manner Christ"s persecutors slew Him because they inflicted on Him what was a sufficient cause of death, and with the intention of slaying Him, and the effect followed, since death resulted from that cause. In another way someone causes an effect indirectly--that is, by not preventing it when he can do so; just as one person is said to drench another by not closing the window through which the shower is entering: and in this way Christ was the cause of His own Pa.s.sion and death. For He could have prevented His Pa.s.sion and death. Firstly, by holding His enemies in check, so that they would not have been eager to slay Him, or would have been powerless to do so. Secondly, because His spirit had the power of preserving His fleshly nature from the infliction of any injury; and Christ"s soul had this power, because it was united in unity of person with the Divine Word, as Augustine says (De Trin. iv). Therefore, since Christ"s soul did not repel the injury inflicted on His body, but willed His corporeal nature to succ.u.mb to such injury, He is said to have laid down His life, or to have died voluntarily.
Reply Obj. 1: When we hear the words, "No man taketh away My life from Me," we must understand "against My will": for that is properly said to be "taken away" which one takes from someone who is unwilling and unable to resist.
Reply Obj. 2: In order for Christ to show that the Pa.s.sion inflicted by violence did not take away His life, He preserved the strength of His bodily nature, so that at the last moment He was able to cry out with a loud voice: and hence His death should be computed among His other miracles. Accordingly it is written (Mk. 15:39): "And the centurion who stood over against Him, seeing that crying out in this manner, He had given up the ghost, said: Indeed, this man was the Son of G.o.d." It was also a subject of wonder in Christ"s death that He died sooner than the others who were tormented with the same suffering. Hence John says (19:32) that "they broke the legs of the first, and of the other that was crucified with Him," that they might die more speedily; "but after they were come to Jesus, when they saw that He was already dead, they did not break His legs." Mark also states (15:44) that "Pilate wondered that He should be already dead."
For as of His own will His bodily nature kept its vigor to the end, so likewise, when He willed, He suddenly succ.u.mbed to the injury inflicted.
Reply Obj. 3: Christ at the same time suffered violence in order to die, and died, nevertheless, voluntarily; because violence was inflicted on His body, which, however, prevailed over His body only so far as He willed it.
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SECOND ARTICLE [III, Q. 47, Art. 2]
Whether Christ Died Out of Obedience?
Objection 1: It would seem that Christ did not die out of obedience.
For obedience is referred to a command. But we do not read that Christ was commanded to suffer. Therefore He did not suffer out of obedience.
Obj. 2: Further, a man is said to do from obedience what he does from necessity of precept. But Christ did not suffer necessarily, but voluntarily. Therefore He did not suffer out of obedience.
Obj. 3: Further, charity is a more excellent virtue than obedience.
But we read that Christ suffered out of charity, according to Eph.
5:2: "Walk in love, as Christ also has loved us, and delivered Himself up for us." Therefore Christ"s Pa.s.sion ought to be ascribed rather to charity than to obedience.
_On the contrary,_ It is written (Phil. 2:8): "He became obedient" to the Father "unto death."
_I answer that,_ It was befitting that Christ should suffer out of obedience. First of all, because it was in keeping with human justification, that "as by the disobedience of one man, many were made sinners: so also by the obedience of one, many shall be made just," as is written Rom. 5:19. Secondly, it was suitable for reconciling man with G.o.d: hence it is written (Rom. 5:10): "We are reconciled to G.o.d by the death of His Son," in so far as Christ"s death was a most acceptable sacrifice to G.o.d, according to Eph. 5:2: "He delivered Himself for us an oblation and a sacrifice to G.o.d for an odor of sweetness." Now obedience is preferred to all sacrifices.
according to 1 Kings 15:22: "Obedience is better than sacrifices."
Therefore it was fitting that the sacrifice of Christ"s Pa.s.sion and death should proceed from obedience. Thirdly, it was in keeping with His victory whereby He triumphed over death and its author; because a soldier cannot conquer unless he obey his captain. And so the Man-Christ secured the victory through being obedient to G.o.d, according to Prov. 21:28: "An obedient man shall speak of victory."
Reply Obj. 1: Christ received a command from the Father to suffer.
For it is written (John 10:18): "I have power to lay down My life, and I have power to take it up again: (and) this commandment have I received of My Father"--namely, of laying down His life and of resuming it again. "From which," as Chrysostom says (Hom. lix in Joan.), it is not to be understood "that at first He awaited the command, and that He had need to be told, but He showed the proceeding to be a voluntary one, and destroyed suspicion of opposition" to the Father. Yet because the Old Law was ended by Christ"s death, according to His dying words, "It is consummated"
(John 19:30), it may be understood that by His suffering He fulfilled all the precepts of the Old Law. He fulfilled those of the moral order which are founded on the precepts of charity, inasmuch as He suffered both out of love of the Father, according to John 14:31: "That the world may know that I love the Father, and as the Father hath given Me commandment, so do I: arise, let us go hence"--namely, to the place of His Pa.s.sion: and out of love of His neighbor, according to Gal. 2:20: "He loved me, and delivered Himself up for me." Christ likewise by His Pa.s.sion fulfilled the ceremonial precepts of the Law, which are chiefly ordained for sacrifices and oblations, in so far as all the ancient sacrifices were figures of that true sacrifice which the dying Christ offered for us. Hence it is written (Col. 2:16, 17): "Let no man judge you in meat or drink, or in respect of a festival day, or of the new moon, or of the sabbaths, which are a shadow of things to come, but the body is Christ"s," for the reason that Christ is compared to them as a body is to a shadow.
Christ also by His Pa.s.sion fulfilled the judicial precepts of the Law, which are chiefly ordained for making compensation to them who have suffered wrong, since, as is written Ps. 68:5: He "paid that which" He "took not away," suffering Himself to be fastened to a tree on account of the apple which man had plucked from the tree against G.o.d"s command.
Reply Obj. 2: Although obedience implies necessity with regard to the thing commanded, nevertheless it implies free-will with regard to the fulfilling of the precept. And, indeed, such was Christ"s obedience, for, although His Pa.s.sion and death, considered in themselves, were repugnant to the natural will, yet Christ resolved to fulfill G.o.d"s will with respect to the same, according to Ps. 39:9: "That I should do Thy will: O my G.o.d, I have desired it." Hence He said (Matt.
26:42): "If this chalice may not pa.s.s away, but I must drink it, Thy will be done."
Reply Obj. 3: For the same reason Christ suffered out of charity and out of obedience; because He fulfilled even the precepts of charity out of obedience only; and was obedient, out of love, to the Father"s command.
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THIRD ARTICLE [III, Q. 47, Art. 3]
Whether G.o.d the Father Delivered Up Christ to the Pa.s.sion?
Objection 1: It would seem that G.o.d the Father did not deliver up Christ to the Pa.s.sion. For it is a wicked and cruel act to hand over an innocent man to torment and death. But, as it is written (Deut.
32:4): "G.o.d is faithful, and without any iniquity." Therefore He did not hand over the innocent Christ to His Pa.s.sion and death.
Obj. 2: Further, it is not likely that a man be given over to death by himself and by another also. But Christ gave Himself up for us, as it is written (Isa. 53:12): "He hath delivered His soul unto death."
Consequently it does not appear that G.o.d the Father delivered Him up.
Obj. 3: Further, Judas is held to be guilty because he betrayed Christ to the Jews, according to John 6:71: "One of you is a devil,"
alluding to Judas, who was to betray Him. The Jews are likewise reviled for delivering Him up to Pilate; as we read in John 18:35: "Thy own nation, and the chief priests have delivered Thee up to me."
Moreover, as is related in John 19:16: Pilate "delivered Him to them to be crucified"; and according to 2 Cor. 6:14: there is no "partic.i.p.ation of justice with injustice." It seems, therefore, that G.o.d the Father did not deliver up Christ to His Pa.s.sion.
_On the contrary,_ It is written (Rom. 8:32): "G.o.d hath not spared His own Son, but delivered Him up for us all."
_I answer that,_ As observed above (A. 2), Christ suffered voluntarily out of obedience to the Father. Hence in three respects G.o.d the Father did deliver up Christ to the Pa.s.sion. In the first way, because by His eternal will He preordained Christ"s Pa.s.sion for the deliverance of the human race, according to the words of Isaias (53:6): "The Lord hath laid on Him the iniquities of us all"; and again (Isa. 53:10): "The Lord was pleased to bruise Him in infirmity." Secondly, inasmuch as, by the infusion of charity, He inspired Him with the will to suffer for us; hence we read in the same pa.s.sage: "He was offered because it was His own will" (Isa.
53:7). Thirdly, by not shielding Him from the Pa.s.sion, but abandoning Him to His persecutors: thus we read (Matt. 27:46) that Christ, while hanging upon the cross, cried out: "My G.o.d, My G.o.d, why hast Thou forsaken Me?" because, to wit, He left Him to the power of His persecutors, as Augustine says (Ep. cxl).
Reply Obj. 1: It is indeed a wicked and cruel act to hand over an innocent man to torment and to death against his will. Yet G.o.d the Father did not so deliver up Christ, but inspired Him with the will to suffer for us. G.o.d"s "severity" (cf. Rom. 11:22) is thereby shown, for He would not remit sin without penalty: and the Apostle indicates this when (Rom. 8:32) he says: "G.o.d spared not even His own Son."